Type 1 VWD
Learning objectives
After completing this quiz, the learner should be able to:
- interpret type 1 VWD as a quantitative pattern that requires clinical context
- distinguish type 1 VWD from low VWF, type 2 VWD, and type 3 VWD using relational laboratory patterns
- apply VWF thresholds without treating them as biological cliffs
- recognize why bleeding phenotype may differ among patients with similar VWF levelsidentify physiologic, genetic, and preanalytical factors that can alter VWF resultsevaluate when desmopressin response, duration, and type 1C clearance patterns matter
- reassess historical type 1 VWD diagnoses when VWF levels normalize with age
A patient has VWF 36 IU/dL, platelet-dependent VWF activity 34 IU/dL, FVIII 52 IU/dL, and normal multimer distribution. Which interpretation best fits the laboratory pattern?
Why is a VWF level of 38 IU/dL not sufficient by itself to diagnose clinically meaningful type 1 VWD?
Two patients both have a VWF activity of 38 IU/dL. One has minimal bleeding, whereas the other has severe heavy menstrual bleeding, iron deficiency, and delayed post-dental bleeding. What best explains the difference?
Which laboratory finding should prompt consideration of type 2 VWD rather than typical type 1 VWD?
A patient with suspected type 1 VWD has normal VWF levels during an acute respiratory infection. What is the best next step?
Which statement best describes the role of ABO blood group in evaluating type 1 VWD?
A desmopressin trial increases VWF activity from 22 IU/dL to 120 IU/dL at one hour, but the level falls to 38 IU/dL by four hours. What is the most important implication?
A patient diagnosed with type 1 VWD during childhood now has normal VWF antigen and activity at age 65. What is the most appropriate interpretation?
Which statement about bleeding assessment tools (BATs) is most accurate?
Which scenario best illustrates an important preanalytical or physiologic pitfall in diagnosing type 1 VWD?
A patient with type 1 VWD, baseline VWF activity of 42 IU/dL, and a mild bleeding phenotype is scheduled for a dental extraction. Which management principle is most appropriate?
Which statement best reflects modern clinical reasoning about type 1 VWD?
Which statement best summarizes treatment logic in type 2 VWD?
Sort each item into the category it most directly supports in evaluating suspected type 1 VWD.
Match the concept with its best clinical implication.
Closing Note
Type 1 VWD is not just “low VWF.” It is low VWF interpreted through pattern, history, exposure, physiology, and consequence. The best diagnosis is not the one that worships a threshold. It is the one that helps the patient bleed less.